Friday 16 November 2012

ENDOCRINOLOGY AND METABOLISM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2


Q 1 .  All the following biochemical markers are a measure
of bone resorption except
A. serum alkaline phosphatase
B. serum cross-linked N-telopeptide
C. serum cross-linked C-telopeptide
D. urine hydroxyproline
E. urine total free deoxypyridinoline



Answer   A


Q 2 . A 54-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology
for evaluation of osteoporosis after a recent evaluation of
back pain revealed a compression fracture of the T4 vertebral
body. She is perimenopausal with irregular menstrual
periods and frequent hot flashes. She does not
smoke. She otherwise is well and healthy. Her weight is 70
kg, and height is 168 cm. A bone mineral density scan
shows a T-score of –3.5 SD and a Z-score of –2.5 SD. All
of the following tests are indicated for the evaluation of
osteoporosis in this patient except
A. 24-h urine calcium
B. follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
levels
C. serum calcium
D. renal function panel
E. vitamin D levels (25-hydroxyvitamin D)



Answer   B


Q 3 A 67-year-old woman presents to clinic after a fall
on the ice a week ago. She visited the local emergency
room immediately after the fall, where hip radiographs
were performed and were negative for fracture or dislocation.
They did reveal fusion of the sacroiliac joints and
coarse trabeculations in the ilium, consistent with Paget
disease. A comprehensive metabolic panel was also sent
at that visit and is remarkable for an alkaline phosphatase
of 157 U/L, with normal serum calcium and phosphate
levels. She was discharged with analgesics and told
to follow up with her primary care doctor for further
management of her radiographic findings. She is recovering
from her fall and denies any long-standing pain or
immobility of her hip joints. She states that her father
suffered from a bone disease that caused him headaches
and hearing loss near the end of his life. She is very concerned
about the radiographs and wants to know what
they mean. Which of the following is the best treatment
strategy at this point?
A. Initiate physical therapy and non-weight bearing exercises
to strengthen the hip.
B. No treatment; she is asymptomatic. Follow radiographs
and laboratory findings every 6 months.
C. Prescribe vitamin D and calcium.
D. Start an oral bisphosphonate.
E. Start high-dose prednisone with rapid taper over 1
week.



Answer    D



Q 4 . A 26-year-old woman presents with 2 weeks of nausea,
vomiting, and jaundice. She has been previously
healthy and has no past medical history. On examination,
a palpable liver edge is appreciated. Ocular findings are
presented in Figure X-14 (Color Atlas). Her transaminases
and total bilirubin are elevated. Which of the following
tests will lead to a definitive diagnosis in this patient?
A. Anti-smooth-muscle antibody
B. Hepatitis B surface antigen
C. Liver biopsy with quantitative copper assay
D. Serum ceruloplasmin
E. Total iron-binding capacity and ferritin



Answer  C


Q 5 . A 29-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining
of difficulty swallowing, sore throat, and tender
swelling in her neck. She has also noted fevers intermittently
over the past week. Several weeks prior to her current
symptoms she experienced symptoms of an upper
respiratory tract infection. She has no past medical history.
On physical examination, she is noted to have a
small goiter that is painful to the touch. Her oropharynx
is clear. Laboratory studies are sent, and reveal a white
blood cell count of 14,100 cells/ μL with a normal differential,
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 53 mm/h,
and a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of 21 μΙU/mL.
Thyroid antibodies are negative. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Autoimmune hypothyroidism
B. Cat-scratch fever
C. Graves’ disease
D. Ludwig’s angina
E. Subacute thyroiditis



Answer   E
 

Q 6 . What is the most appropriate treatment for the patient
described above?
A. Iodine ablation of the thyroid
B. Large doses of aspirin
C. Local radiation therapy
D. No treatment necessary
E. Propylthiouracil



Answer   B


Q 7 . The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT)
provided definitive proof that reduction in chronic hyperglycemia
A. improves microvascular complications in type 1 diabetes
mellitus
B. improves macrovascular complications in type 1 diabetes
mellitus
C. improves microvascular complications in type 2 diabetes
mellitus
D. improves macrovascular complications in type 2 diabetes
mellitus
E. improves both microvascular and macrovascular
complications in type 2 diabetes mellitus



Answer     A



Q 8 . A 54-year-old woman undergoes thyroidectomy for
follicular carcinoma of the thyroid. About 6 h after surgery,
the patient complains of tingling around her mouth.
She subsequently develops a pins-and-needles sensation
in the fingers and toes. The nurse calls the physician to
the bedside to evaluate the patient after she has severe
hand cramps when her blood pressure is taken. Upon
evaluation, the patient is still complaining of intermittent
cramping of her hands. Since surgery, she has received
morphine sulfate, 2 mg, for pain and compazine, 5 mg,
for nausea. She has had no change in her vital signs and is
afebrile. Tapping on the inferior portion of the zygomatic
arch 2 cm anterior to the ear produces twitching at the
corner of the mouth. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows
a QT interval of 575 ms. What is the next step in evaluation
and treatment of this patient?
A. Administration of benztropine, 2 mg IV
B. Administration of calcium gluconate, 2 g IV
C. Administration of magnesium sulphate, 4 g IV
D. Measurement of calcium, magnesium, phosphate,
and potassium levels
E. Measurement of forced vital capacity



Answer    B



Q 9 . A 49-year-old male is brought to the hospital by his
family because of confusion and dehydration. The family
reports that for the last 3 weeks he has had persistent
copious watery diarrhea that has not abated with the use
of over-the-counter medications. The diarrhea has been
unrelated to food intake and has persisted during fasting.
The stool does not appear fatty and is not malodorous.
The patient works as an attorney, is a vegetarian,
and has not traveled recently. No one in the household
has had similar symptoms. Before the onset of diarrhea,
he had mild anorexia and a 5-lb weight loss. Since the
diarrhea began, he has lost at least 10 pounds. The physical
examination is notable for blood pressure of 100/70,
heart rate of 110/min, and temperature of 36.8°C
(98.2°F). Other than poor skin turgor, confusion, and
diffuse muscle weakness, the physical examination is
unremarkable. Laboratory studies are notable for a normal
complete blood count and the following chemistry
results:
Na+ 146 meq/L
K+ 3.0 meq/L
Cl 96 meq/L
HCO3
 36 meq/L
BUN 32 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
A 24-h stool collection yields 3 L of tea-colored stool.
Stool sodium is 50 meq/L, potassium is 25 meq/L, and
stool osmolality is 170 mosmol/L. Which of the following
diagnostic tests is most likely to yield the correct diagnosis?
A. Serum cortisol
B Serum TSH
C. Serum VIP
D. Urinary 5-HIAA
E. Urinary metanephrine



Answer   C


Q 10 . A 68-year-old woman with stage IIIB squamous cell
carcinoma of the lung is admitted to the hospital because
of altered mental status and dehydration. Upon admission,
she is found to have a calcium level of 19.6 mg/dL
and phosphate of 1.8 mg/dL. Concomitant measurement
of parathyroid hormone was 0.1 pg/mL (normal 10–65
pg/mL), and a screen for parathyroid hormone–related
peptide was positive. Over the first 24 h, the patient receives
4 L of normal saline with furosemide diuresis. The
next morning, the patient’s calcium is now 17.6 mg/dL
and phosphate is 2.2 mg/dL. She continues to have delirium.
What is the best approach for ongoing treatment of
this patient’s hypercalcemia?
A. Continue therapy with large-volume fluid administration
and forced diuresis with furosemide.
B. Continue therapy with large-volume fluid administration,
but stop furosemide and treat with hydrochlorothiazide.
C. Initiate therapy with calcitonin alone.
D. Initiate therapy with pamidronate alone.
E. Initiate therapy with calcitonin and pamidronate.



Answer    E

ENDOCRINOLOGY AND METABOLISM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 3


Q 1 . Differentiating primary dysmenorrhea from other causes
of chronic cyclical pelvic pain is important because there is a
specific treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. What is the
pathophysiology/treatment for primary dysmenorrhea?
A. Ectopic endometrium/oral contraceptives
B. History of sexual abuse/counseling
C. Increased stores of prostaglandin precursors/antiinflammatory
medication
D. Ruptured graafian follicle/oral contraceptives



Answer   C


Q 2 . A 25-year-old female notes increasing facial hair and
acne for the last 4 months. She has noticed some deepening
of her voice but denies changes in her libido or genitalia.
She weighs 94 kg and is 5 feet 5 inches tall. Blood
pressure is 126/70 mmHg. Examination is notable for
moderate obesity. There is no evidence of abdominal
striae or bruising. All the following would be important
initial steps in the clinical assessment of this patient except
A. medication history
B. family history
C. serum testosterone level
D. serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) level
E. abdominal ultrasound


Answer   E


Q 3 . A patient visited a local emergency room 1 week ago
with a headache. She received a head MRI, which did not
reveal a cause for her symptoms, but the final report states
“an empty sella is noted. Advise clinical correlation.” The
patient was discharged from the emergency room with instructions
to follow-up with her primary care physician as
soon as possible. Her headache has resolved, and the patient
has no complaints; however, she comes to your office
1 day later very concerned about this unexpected MRI
finding. What should be the next step in her management?
A. Diagnose her with subclinical pan-hypopituitarism,
and initiate low-dose hormone replacement.
B. Reassure her and follow laboratory results closely.
C. Reassure her and repeat MRI in 6 months.
D. This may represent early endocrine malignancy—
whole-body positron-emission tomography/CT is
indicated.
E. This MRI finding likely represents the presence of a benign
adenoma—refer to neurosurgery for resection.



Answer    B



Q 4 . A 16-year-old previously healthy teenage boy presents
to the local emergency room with a headache that
has been worsening over the course of 2 months. His parents
note that “he just hasn’t seemed like himself,” and
over the past 2 weeks has been complaining of double vision.
He experienced profuse vomiting this afternoon,
which prompted his visit. He also describes weight gain
over the same 2 month time period and has not been
sleeping well. On examination, he is drowsy, and funduscopic
examination reveals papilledema. He has no fever,
neck stiffness, or elevated white blood cell count. Which
of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Carney syndrome
B. Congenital pan-hypopituitarism
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. McCune-Albright syndrome
E. Meningioma



Answer     C
 

Q 5 . At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, a luteinizing
hormone (LH) surge occurs via an estrogen-mediated
pathway. Though chronic low levels of estrogen are inhibitory
to LH release, gradually rising estrogen levels stimulate
LH secretion. This relationship between estrogen and
LH is an example of which endocrine regulatory system?
A. Autocrine regulation
B. Negative feedback control
C. Paracrine regulation
D. Positive feedback control


Answer   D


Q 6 . Which of the following is the most common site for a
fracture associated with osteoporosis?
A. Femur
B. Hip
C. Radius
D. Vertebra
E. Wrist


Answer   D


Q 7 . Postmenopausal estrogen therapy has been shown to
increase a female’s risk of all the following clinical outcomes
except
A. breast cancer
B. hip fracture
C. myocardial infarction
D. stroke
E. venous thromboembolism



Answer    B



Q 8 . All the following therapies have been shown to reduce
the risk of hip fractures in postmenopausal women
with osteoporosis except
A. alendronate
B. estrogen
C. parathyroid hormone
D. raloxifene
E. risedronate
F. vitamin D plus calcium



Answer    D


Q 9 .  A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with pheochromocytoma
after presentation with confusion, marked hypertension
to 250/140 mmHg, tachycardia, headaches, and
flushing. His fractionated plasma metanephrines show a
normetanephrine level of 560 pg/mL and a metanephrine
level of 198 pg/mL (normal values: normetanephrine:
18–111 pg/mL; metanephrine: 12–60 pg/mL). CT
scanning of the abdomen with IV contrast demonstrates
a 3-cm mass in the right adrenal gland. A brain MRI with
gadolinium shows edema of the white matter near the
parietooccipital junction consistent with reversible posterior
leukoencephalopathy. You are asked to consult regarding
management. Which of the following statements
is true regarding management of pheochromocytoma is
this individual?
A. Beta-blockade is absolutely contraindicated for tachycardia
even after adequate alpha-blockade has been
attained.
B. Immediate surgical removal of the mass is indicated,
because the patient presented with hypertensive crisis
with encephalopathy.
C. Salt and fluid intake should be restricted to prevent
further exacerbation of the patient’s hypertension.
D. Treatment with phenoxybenzamine should be started
at a high dose (20–30 mg three times daily) to rapidly
control blood pressure, and surgery can be undertaken
within 24–48 h.
E. Treatment with IV phentolamine is indicated for
treatment of the hypertensive crisis. Phenoxybenzamine
should be started at a low dose and titrated
to the maximum tolerated dose over 2–3 weeks. Surgery
should not be planned until the blood pressure
is consistently below 160/100 mmHg.



Answer   E


Q 10 . Inhibition of renin activity is a contemporary target
mechanism for treatment of hypertension. All of the following
physiologic alterations will cause an increase in renin
secretion except
A. decreased effective circulating blood volume
B. high-potassium diet
C. increased sympathetic activity
D. low solute delivery to the distal convoluted tubules
E. upright posture



Answer   B