Showing posts with label prepg. Show all posts
Showing posts with label prepg. Show all posts

Monday, 8 July 2013

Suggested scheme for calcium supplementation in pregnant women

Suggested scheme for calcium supplementation in pregnant women

Dosage  ~       1.5–2.0 g elemental calcium/day 

Frequency   ~  Daily, with the total daily dosage divided into three doses (preferably taken at mealtimes)

Duration  ~  From 20 weeks’ gestation until the end of pregnancy

Target group  ~  All pregnant women, particularly those at higher risk of gestational hypertension

Settings  ~  Areas with low calcium intake

(1 g of elemental calcium equals 2.5 g of calcium carbonate or 4 g of calcium citrate)

Thursday, 15 November 2012

ENDOCRINOLOGY AND METABOLISM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


Q 1 . What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism
worldwide?
A. Autoimmune disease
B. Graves’ disease
C. Iatrogenic causes
D. Iodine deficiency
E. Medication side effects

Answer D


Q 2 . A 23-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining
of months of weight gain, fatigue, amenorrhea, and worsening
acne. She cannot identify when her symptoms began
precisely, but she reports that without a change in her
diet she has noted a 12.3-kg weight gain over the past 6
months. She has been amenorrheic for several months.
On examination she is noted to have truncal obesity with
bilateral purplish striae across both flanks. Cushing’s syndrome
is suspected. Which of the following tests should
be used to make the diagnosis?
A. 24-h urine free cortisol
B. Basal adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
C. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) level at 8 A.M .
D. Inferior petrosal venous sampling
E. Overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test


Answer  A


Q 3 . Secretion of gonadotropin releasing-hormone (GnRH)
normally stimulates release of luteinizing hormone (LH)
and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) which promote
production and release of testosterone and estrogen.
Which mechanism below best explains how long-acting
gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists (e.g., leuprolide)
decrease testosterone levels in the management of
prostate cancer?
A. GnRH agonists also promote production of sex hormone–
binding globulin, which decreases the availability
of testosterone
B. Negative feedback loop between GnRH and LH/FSH
C. Sensitivity of LH and FSH to pulse frequency of GnRH
D. Translocation of the cytoplasmic nuclear receptor
into the nucleus with constitutive activation of
GnRH


Answer   C

Q 4 .  A 44-year-old woman seeks evaluation for irregular
menstrual cycles with heavy menstrual bleeding. She reports
that her menses had been regular with 28-day cycles
since her early twenties. However, for the past 6 months,
her cycles have been 22–25 days with heavy associated
bleeding that is unusual for her. She has had rare hot
flashes and sleep disturbance. She is requesting assistance
in controlling these symptoms. You suspect she is perimenopausal,
and hormonal testing on day 2 of her
menses confirms this suspicion. You are considering
treatment with oral contraceptives for control of her
symptoms and to protect against unintended pregnancy.
All of the following would be considered contraindications
to use of oral contraceptive pills except
A. breast cancer
B. cigarette smoking
C. kidney disease
D. liver disease
E. prior history of deep venous thrombosis

Answer C


Q 5. All the following are risk factors for the development
of osteoporotic fractures except
A. African-American race
B. current cigarette smoking
C. female sex
D. low body weight
E. physical inactivity

Answer  A

Q 6. All the following drugs are associated with an increased
risk of osteoporosis in adults except
A. cyclosporine
B. dilantin
C. heparin
D. prednisone
E. ranitidine

Answer  E

Q 7. A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a variety
of complaints that have been worsening over the past
year or so. She notes fatigue, amenorrhea, and weight
gain. She states that her primary physician diagnosed her
with hypothyroidism several months ago, and she has
been faithfully taking thyroid hormone replacement. Her
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) has been in the normal
range over the last two laboratory checks. When her
symptoms did not improve on synthroid, she was sent
to your clinic for further evaluation. A diagnosis of panhypopituitarism
is considered. All of the following are
consistent with normal pituitary function except
A. basal elevation of follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) in a postmenopausal
woman
B. elevation of aldosterone after infusion of cosyntropin
C. elevation of growth hormone after ingestion of a
glucose load
D. elevation of cortisol after injection of regular insulin
E. elevation of TSH after infusion of thyrotropinreleasing
hormone (TRH)


Answer C


Q 8. A 33-year-old male with end-stage renal disease who is
on hemodialysis complains of decreased libido, inability
to maintain erections, increasing fatigue, and mild weakness.
He has been on a stable hemodialysis regimen for 8
years, and all his electrolytes are normal. Further evaluation
reveals a reduced serum testosterone level. Measurement
of which of the following will distinguish primary
from secondary hypogonadism?
A. Aldosterone
B. Cortisol
C. Estradiol
D. Luteinizing hormone
E. Thyroid-stimulating hormone


Answer  D


Q 9. A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency
room by ambulance for altered mental status. The glucose
level by fingerstick monitoring was below the measurement
capabilities of the monitor (<40 mg/dL). After
2 ampules of 50% dextrose, the patient’s fingerstick glucose
remains at 42 mg/dL. She remains unconscious and
had a 1-min seizure while in transport. She has no history
of diabetes mellitus. Her family denies that she has been
recently ill, but recently she has been depressed. She
works as a registered nurse on a medical floor of the hospital.
Which of the following tests would confirm an
overdose of exogenous insulin?
A. Plasma glucose <55 mg/dL, plasma insulin >18
pmol/L, and plasma C-peptide levels undetectable
B. Plasma glucose <55 mg/dL, plasma insulin >18
pmol/L, and plasma C-peptide levels >0.6 ng/mL
C. Plasma glucose <55 mg/dL, plasma insulin <18
pmol/L, and plasma glucagon <12 pmol/L
D. Plasma glucose <55 mg/dL, plasma insulin <18
pmol/L, and C-peptide levels undetectable


Answer A

Q  10. A 44-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision.
He sustains multiple injuries to the face, chest, and
pelvis. He is unresponsive in the field and is intubated for
airway protection. An intravenous line is placed. The patient
is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with
multiple orthopedic injuries. He is stabilized medically
and on hospital day 2 undergoes successful open reduction
and internal fixation of the right femur and right humerus.
After his return to the ICU, you review his
laboratory values. TSH is 0.3 mU/L, and the total T 4 level
is normal. T3 is 0.6 μg/dL. What is the most appropriate
next management step?
A. Initiation of levothyroxine
B. A radioiodine uptake scan
C. A thyroid ultrasound
D. Observation
E. Initiation of prednisone


Answer   D

Wednesday, 14 November 2012

Rheumatoid arthritis Multiple choice questions


Q 1 . A 72-year-old man develops severe pain and swelling in both knees,
shortly after undergoing an abdominal hernia repair surgery. Physical
examination shows warmth and swelling of both knees with large effusions.
Arthrocentesis of the right knee reveals the presence of intracellular
and extracellular weakly positive birefringent crystals in the
synovial fluid. Gram stain is negative. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Gout
B. Septic arthritis
C. Calcium oxalate deposition disease
D. Reactive arthritis
E. Pseudogout



Answer    E


Q 2 . A 65-year-old man with a history of chronic hypertension, diabetes
mellitus, and degenerative joint disease presents with acute onset of
severe pain of the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint and swelling of the
left first toe. Physical examination shows exquisite tenderness of the
joint, with swelling, warmth, and erythema. The patient has no history
of trauma or other significant medical problems. Synovial fluid
analysis and aspiration is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Hemorrhagic fluid
B. Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals
C. Gram-negative organisms
D. Noninflammatory fluid
E. Rhomboidal, positively birefringent crystals



Answer     B



Q 3 A 17-year-old sexually active adolescent male presents with a 5-day
history of fever, chills, and persistent left ankle pain and swelling. On
physical examination, maculopapular and pustular skin lesions are
noted on the trunk and extremities. He denies any symptoms of genitourinary
tract infection. Synovial fluid analysis is most likely to show
which of the following?
A. WBCs 75,000/mm 3 with 95% polymorphonuclear leukocytes
B. RBCs 100,000/mm 3 , WBCs 1000/mm3
C. WBCs 48,000/mm 3 with 80% lymphocytes
D. WBCs 500/mm 3 with 25% polymorphonuclear leukocytes



Answer    A



Q 4 . A 22-year-old man presents with complaints of low back pain for 3 to
4 months and stiffness of the lumbar area, which worsen with inactivity.
He reports difficulty in getting out of bed in the morning and may
have to roll out sideways, trying not to flex or rotate the spine to minimize
pain. A lumbosacral (LS) spine X-ray film would most likely
show which of the following?
A. Degenerative joint disease with spur formation
B. Sacroiliitis with increased sclerosis around the sacroiliac joints
C. Vertebral body destruction with wedge fractures
D. Osteoporosis with compression fractures of L3-L5
E. Diffuse osteonecrosis of the LS spine



Answer    B



Q 5 . A 36-year-old woman was seen by her physician due to pain in her
hands, wrists, and knees. She is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.
Which of the following treatments will reduce joint inflammation and
slow progression of the disease?
A. NSAIDs
B. Joint aspiration
C. Methotrexate
D. Systemic corticosteroids


Answer    C

Oncology And Hematology multiple choice questions 6


Q 1 All of the following statements regarding tobacco
usage and cessation are correct except
A. Most Americans who quit do so on their own without
involvement in an organized cessation program.
B. Over 80% of adult Americans who smoke began before
the age of 18.
C. Smokeless tobacco is associated with gum and dental
disease, not cancer.
D. Tobacco cessation messages and programs are more
effective for light smokers than for heavy smokers.
E. Tobacco use is the most modifiable cancer risk factor.



Answer    C



Q 2 .  A 29-year-old male is found on routine chest radiography
for life insurance to have right hilar adenopathy.
He is otherwise healthy. Besides biopsy of the lymph
nodes, which of the following is indicated?
A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level
B. β-hCG
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. PSA
E. C-reactive protein


Answer   B


Q 3 . Which of the following is correct regarding small-cell
lung cancer compared with non-small cell lung cancer?
A. Small-cell lung cancer is more radiosensitive.
B. Small-cell lung cancer is less chemosensitive.
C. Small-cell lung cancer is more likely to present peripherally
in the lung.
D. Small-cell lung cancer is derived from an alveolar cell.
E. Bone marrow involvement is more common in nonsmall
cell lung cancer.


Answer   A


Q 4 .  Which of the following statements regarding esophageal
cancer is true?
A. Cigarette smoking and heavy alcohol intake are synergistic
risk factors for adenocarcinoma.
B. Chronic gastric reflux is a risk factor for development
of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.
C. Esophageal cancer is most common in the middle
third of the esophagus.
D. Incidence of squamous cell carcinoma has decreased
over the past 30 years while adenocarcinoma continues
to increase.
E. The prognosis for patients with adenocarcinoma is
consistently better than for those with squamous
cell carcinoma.
F. All of the above are true.



Answer   D



Q 5 . All the following conditions are associated with an
increased incidence of cancer except
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Fanconi’s anemia
C. Von Hippel–Lindau syndrome
D. neurofibromatosis
E. fragile X syndrome



Answer   E


Q 6 . A 50-year-old female presents to your clinic for
evaluation of an elevated platelet count. The latest complete
blood count is white blood cells (WBC) 7,000/mm 3,
hematocrit 34%, and platelets 600,000/mm 3. All the following
are common causes of thrombocytosis except
A. iron-deficiency anemia
B. essential thrombocytosis
C. chronic myeloid leukemia
D. myelodysplasia
E. pernicious anemia



Answer  E



Q 7 .  A 76-year-old man presents to an urgent care
clinic with pain in his left leg for 4 days. He also describes
swelling in his left ankle, which has made it difficult
for him to ambulate. He is an active smoker and has
a medical history remarkable for gastroesophageal reflux
disease, prior deep venous thrombosis (DVT) 9
months ago that resolved, and well-controlled hypertension.
Physical examination is revealing for 2+ edema in
his left ankle. A D-dimer is ordered and is elevated.
Which of the following makes D-dimer less predictive of
DVT in this patient?
A. Age >70
B. History of active tobacco use
C. Lack of suggestive clinical symptoms
D. Negative Homan’s sign on examination
E. Previous DVT in the past year



Answer   A



Q  8 . A patient with longstanding HIV infection, alcoholism,
and asthma is seen in the emergency room for 1–2
days of severe wheezing. He has not been taking any medicines
for months. He is admitted to the hospital and
treated with nebulized therapy and systemic glucocorticoids.
His CD4 count is 8 and viral load is >750,000. His
total white blood cell (WBC) count is 3200 cells / μL with
90% neutrophils. He is accepted into an inpatient substance
abuse rehabilitation program and before discharge
is started on opportunistic infection prophylaxis, bronchodilators,
a prednisone taper over 2 weeks, ranitidine,
and highly-active antiretroviral therapy. The rehabilitation
center pages you 2 weeks later; a routine laboratory
check reveals a total WBC count of 900 cells/ μL with 5%
neutrophils. Which of the following new drugs would
most likely explain this patient’s neutropenia?
A. Darunavir
B. Efavirenz
C. Ranitidine
D. Prednisone
E. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole


answer    E



Q 9 . Which of the following symptoms is most suggestive
of an esophageal mass?
A. Early satiety
B. Liquid phase dysphagia only
C. Odynophagia with chest pain
D. Oropharyngeal dysphagia
E. Solid phase dysphagia progressing to liquid phase
dysphagia


Answer   E



Q 10 . All of the following have been associated with development
of a lymphoid malignancy except
A. celiac sprue
B. Helicobacter pylori infection
C. hepatitis B infection
D. HIV infection
E. human herpes virus 8 (HHV8) infection
F. inherited immunodeficiency syndromes



Answer    C