Showing posts with label usmle. Show all posts
Showing posts with label usmle. Show all posts

Thursday, 13 June 2013

Parvo virus

-SS DNA virus

- Human pathogen is parvo virus B-19

Clinical manifestations

- Erythema infectiosum
               fifth disease
               Slapped cheek appearance

-  Arthropathy         

- Transient aplastic crisis in chronic hemolytic disease patient

- In immunodeficient patient it causes chronic anemia with reticulocytopenia

- Fetal infection leading to nonimmunohydrops fetalis

- Hemophagocytic syndrome

Friday, 7 June 2013

A LIST OF DIFFERENT TYPES OF FACIESIN DIFFERENT CONDITIONS

1. Mask like facies = Parkinsonism.

2. Elfin facies = William's syndrome.

3. Moon facies = Cushing's syndrome.

4. Snarling facies = Myasthenia gravis.

5. Mitral facies = Mitral stenosis.

6. Ashen grey facies = MyocardialInfarction.

7. Mouse facies = Chronic RenalFailure (CRF)

8. Adenoid facies = Adenoidhypertrophy .

9. Leonine facies = Lepromatousleprosy .

10. Bird facies = Pierre Robinsyndrome.

11. Mongoloid facies = Down'ssyndrome.

12. Coarse facies = Most of the inbornerrors of metabolism (IEM) viz. themuco- polysaccharidoses (MPS),mucolipidoses (ML), fucosidosesmannosidoses, sialidoses,aspartylglycosaminuria, generalisedgangliosidosis(GMl ) and Austin'svariant of metachromaticleukodystrophy due to multiplesulfatase deficiency (MLD-MSD) havesimilar appearing facies.

13. Syphilitic facies = Congenitalsyphilis (dog jaw)

Wednesday, 14 November 2012

Rheumatoid arthritis Multiple choice questions


Q 1 . A 72-year-old man develops severe pain and swelling in both knees,
shortly after undergoing an abdominal hernia repair surgery. Physical
examination shows warmth and swelling of both knees with large effusions.
Arthrocentesis of the right knee reveals the presence of intracellular
and extracellular weakly positive birefringent crystals in the
synovial fluid. Gram stain is negative. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Gout
B. Septic arthritis
C. Calcium oxalate deposition disease
D. Reactive arthritis
E. Pseudogout



Answer    E


Q 2 . A 65-year-old man with a history of chronic hypertension, diabetes
mellitus, and degenerative joint disease presents with acute onset of
severe pain of the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint and swelling of the
left first toe. Physical examination shows exquisite tenderness of the
joint, with swelling, warmth, and erythema. The patient has no history
of trauma or other significant medical problems. Synovial fluid
analysis and aspiration is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Hemorrhagic fluid
B. Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals
C. Gram-negative organisms
D. Noninflammatory fluid
E. Rhomboidal, positively birefringent crystals



Answer     B



Q 3 A 17-year-old sexually active adolescent male presents with a 5-day
history of fever, chills, and persistent left ankle pain and swelling. On
physical examination, maculopapular and pustular skin lesions are
noted on the trunk and extremities. He denies any symptoms of genitourinary
tract infection. Synovial fluid analysis is most likely to show
which of the following?
A. WBCs 75,000/mm 3 with 95% polymorphonuclear leukocytes
B. RBCs 100,000/mm 3 , WBCs 1000/mm3
C. WBCs 48,000/mm 3 with 80% lymphocytes
D. WBCs 500/mm 3 with 25% polymorphonuclear leukocytes



Answer    A



Q 4 . A 22-year-old man presents with complaints of low back pain for 3 to
4 months and stiffness of the lumbar area, which worsen with inactivity.
He reports difficulty in getting out of bed in the morning and may
have to roll out sideways, trying not to flex or rotate the spine to minimize
pain. A lumbosacral (LS) spine X-ray film would most likely
show which of the following?
A. Degenerative joint disease with spur formation
B. Sacroiliitis with increased sclerosis around the sacroiliac joints
C. Vertebral body destruction with wedge fractures
D. Osteoporosis with compression fractures of L3-L5
E. Diffuse osteonecrosis of the LS spine



Answer    B



Q 5 . A 36-year-old woman was seen by her physician due to pain in her
hands, wrists, and knees. She is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.
Which of the following treatments will reduce joint inflammation and
slow progression of the disease?
A. NSAIDs
B. Joint aspiration
C. Methotrexate
D. Systemic corticosteroids


Answer    C

Oncology And Hematology multiple choice questions 6


Q 1 All of the following statements regarding tobacco
usage and cessation are correct except
A. Most Americans who quit do so on their own without
involvement in an organized cessation program.
B. Over 80% of adult Americans who smoke began before
the age of 18.
C. Smokeless tobacco is associated with gum and dental
disease, not cancer.
D. Tobacco cessation messages and programs are more
effective for light smokers than for heavy smokers.
E. Tobacco use is the most modifiable cancer risk factor.



Answer    C



Q 2 .  A 29-year-old male is found on routine chest radiography
for life insurance to have right hilar adenopathy.
He is otherwise healthy. Besides biopsy of the lymph
nodes, which of the following is indicated?
A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level
B. β-hCG
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. PSA
E. C-reactive protein


Answer   B


Q 3 . Which of the following is correct regarding small-cell
lung cancer compared with non-small cell lung cancer?
A. Small-cell lung cancer is more radiosensitive.
B. Small-cell lung cancer is less chemosensitive.
C. Small-cell lung cancer is more likely to present peripherally
in the lung.
D. Small-cell lung cancer is derived from an alveolar cell.
E. Bone marrow involvement is more common in nonsmall
cell lung cancer.


Answer   A


Q 4 .  Which of the following statements regarding esophageal
cancer is true?
A. Cigarette smoking and heavy alcohol intake are synergistic
risk factors for adenocarcinoma.
B. Chronic gastric reflux is a risk factor for development
of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.
C. Esophageal cancer is most common in the middle
third of the esophagus.
D. Incidence of squamous cell carcinoma has decreased
over the past 30 years while adenocarcinoma continues
to increase.
E. The prognosis for patients with adenocarcinoma is
consistently better than for those with squamous
cell carcinoma.
F. All of the above are true.



Answer   D



Q 5 . All the following conditions are associated with an
increased incidence of cancer except
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Fanconi’s anemia
C. Von Hippel–Lindau syndrome
D. neurofibromatosis
E. fragile X syndrome



Answer   E


Q 6 . A 50-year-old female presents to your clinic for
evaluation of an elevated platelet count. The latest complete
blood count is white blood cells (WBC) 7,000/mm 3,
hematocrit 34%, and platelets 600,000/mm 3. All the following
are common causes of thrombocytosis except
A. iron-deficiency anemia
B. essential thrombocytosis
C. chronic myeloid leukemia
D. myelodysplasia
E. pernicious anemia



Answer  E



Q 7 .  A 76-year-old man presents to an urgent care
clinic with pain in his left leg for 4 days. He also describes
swelling in his left ankle, which has made it difficult
for him to ambulate. He is an active smoker and has
a medical history remarkable for gastroesophageal reflux
disease, prior deep venous thrombosis (DVT) 9
months ago that resolved, and well-controlled hypertension.
Physical examination is revealing for 2+ edema in
his left ankle. A D-dimer is ordered and is elevated.
Which of the following makes D-dimer less predictive of
DVT in this patient?
A. Age >70
B. History of active tobacco use
C. Lack of suggestive clinical symptoms
D. Negative Homan’s sign on examination
E. Previous DVT in the past year



Answer   A



Q  8 . A patient with longstanding HIV infection, alcoholism,
and asthma is seen in the emergency room for 1–2
days of severe wheezing. He has not been taking any medicines
for months. He is admitted to the hospital and
treated with nebulized therapy and systemic glucocorticoids.
His CD4 count is 8 and viral load is >750,000. His
total white blood cell (WBC) count is 3200 cells / μL with
90% neutrophils. He is accepted into an inpatient substance
abuse rehabilitation program and before discharge
is started on opportunistic infection prophylaxis, bronchodilators,
a prednisone taper over 2 weeks, ranitidine,
and highly-active antiretroviral therapy. The rehabilitation
center pages you 2 weeks later; a routine laboratory
check reveals a total WBC count of 900 cells/ μL with 5%
neutrophils. Which of the following new drugs would
most likely explain this patient’s neutropenia?
A. Darunavir
B. Efavirenz
C. Ranitidine
D. Prednisone
E. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole


answer    E



Q 9 . Which of the following symptoms is most suggestive
of an esophageal mass?
A. Early satiety
B. Liquid phase dysphagia only
C. Odynophagia with chest pain
D. Oropharyngeal dysphagia
E. Solid phase dysphagia progressing to liquid phase
dysphagia


Answer   E



Q 10 . All of the following have been associated with development
of a lymphoid malignancy except
A. celiac sprue
B. Helicobacter pylori infection
C. hepatitis B infection
D. HIV infection
E. human herpes virus 8 (HHV8) infection
F. inherited immunodeficiency syndromes



Answer    C

Monday, 29 October 2012

Nutrition multiple choice questions 2

Q 1. An 86-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure, and insulin-requiring type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the intensive care unit with an exacerbation of her COPD. She is intubated and treated with glucocorticoids and nebulized albuterol. She is also continued on her glargine insulin, aspirin, pravastatin, furosemide, enalapril, and metoprolol. On hospital day 8, parenteral nutrition is begun via catheter in the subclavian vein. Her insulin requirements increase on hospital day 9 due to episodes of hyperglycemia. On hospital day 10, she develops rales and an increasing oxygen requirement. A chest radiograph shows bilateral pulmonary edema. Laboratory data show hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypophosphatemia and a normal creatinine. Her weight has increased by 3 kg since admission. Urine sodium is <10 meq/dL. All of the following changes in her nutritional regimen will improve her volume status except

A.combination of glucose and fat in the parenteral nutrition mixture

B. decreasing the sodium content of the mixture to <40 meq per day

C.increasing the protein content of the parenteral nutrition mixture

D.reducing the overall glucose content

ANSWER . C

Q 2. A new study has been published showing a benefit of 25 mg/day of vitamin X. The recommended estimated average requirement of vitamin X is 10 mg/day, 2 standard deviations below the amount published in the study. The tolerable upper limit of vitamin X is unknown. Your patient wants to know if it is safe to consume 25 mg/day of vitamin X. Which is the most appropriate answer?

A.Two standard deviations above the estimated average requirement defines the tolerable upper limit.

B. 25 mg/day is probably too much vitamin X in 1 day.

C.25 mg/day is statistically in a safe range of the estimated average requirement.

D.The study was not designed to assess safety and therefore should not influence practice

ANSWER . C

Q 3. An elevation in which of the following hormones is consistent with the effects of anorexia nervosa?

A.Cortisol

B. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

C.Leptin

D.Thyroxine (T4)

E. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

ANSWER. A

Q 4. Which of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa (AN) and bulimia nervosa (BN) is true?

A.Patients with the purging subtype of BN tend to be heavier than those with the nonpurging subtype.

B. Patients with the restricting subtype of AN are more emotionally labile than those with the purging subtype.

C.Patients with the restricting subtype of AN are more likely to abuse illicit drugs than those with the purging subtype.

D.The mortality of BN is lower than that of AN

ANSWER . D

Q 5. You are seeing a pediatric patient from Djibouti in consultation who was admitted with a constellation of symptoms including diarrhea, alopecia, muscle wasting, depression, and a rash involving the face, extremities, and perineum. The child has hypogonadism and dwarfism. You astutely make the diagnosis of zinc deficiency, and laboratory test confirm this (zinc level <70 µL/dL). What other clinical findings is this patient likely to manifest?

A.Dissecting aortic aneurysm

B. Hypochromic anemia

C.Hypoglycemia

D.Hypopigmented hair

E. Macrocytosis

ANSWER. D

Q 6. You are rotating on a medical trip to impoverished areas of China. You are examining an 8-year-old child whose mother complains of him being clumsy and sickly. He has had many episodes of diarrheal illnesses and pneumonia. His “clumsiness” is most pronounced in the evening when he has to go outside and do his chores. On examination, you notice conjunctival dryness with white patches of keratinized epithelium on the sclera. What is the cause of this child’s symptoms?

A.Autoimmune neutropenia

B. Congenital rubella

C.Spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) type 1

D.Vitamin A deficiency

E. Vitamin B1 deficiency

ANSWER. D

Q 7. After being stranded alone in the mountains for 8 days, a 26-year-old hiker is brought to the hospital for evaluation of a right femoral neck fracture. He has not had anything to eat or drink for the past 6 days. Vital signs are within normal limits. Weight is 79.5 kg, which is 1.8 kg less than he weighed 6 months ago. Laboratory data show a creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL, blood urea nitrogen of 52 mg/dL, glucose 96 mg/dL, albumin 4.1 mg/dL, chloride 105 meq/L, and ferritin on 173 ng/mL. Which of the following statements is true regarding his risk of malnourishment?

A.He has protein-calorie malnutrition due to the rate of weight loss.

B. He has protein-calorie malnutrition due to his elevated ferritin.

C.He is at risk, but a normal individual can tolerate 7 days of starvation.

D.He is not malnourished because he is not hypoglycemic after 6 days of no food or water

ANSWER. C

Q 8. You are doing rounds in the intensive care unit on an intubated patient who is recovering from a stroke and has diabetic gastroparesis. When suctioning the patient in the morning, she coughs profusely, with thick green secretions. You are concerned about the possibility of aspiration pneumonia. All of the following measures are useful in preventing aspiration pneumonia in an intubated patientexcept

A.combined enteral and parenteral nutrition

B. elevating the head of the bed to 30°

C.physician-directed methods for formula advancement

D.post-ligament of Treitz feeding

ANSWER. C

Q 9. Which of these features represents a critical distinction between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?

A.Binge eating

B. Electrolyte abnormalities

C.Self-induced vomiting

D.Underweight

ANSWER. D

Q 10. You are counseling a patient who is recovering from long-standing anorexia nervosa (AN). She is a 22-yearold woman who suffered the effects of AN for 8 years with a nadir body mass index of 17 kg/m2 and many laboratory abnormalities during that time. Which of the following characteristics of AN is least likely to improve despite successful lasting treatment of the disorder?

A.Amenorrhea

B. Delayed gastric emptying

C.Lanugo

D.Low bone mass

E. Salivary gland enlargement

ANSWER. D